Do we have more evidence of bad translation? Let’s plunge into the Deeper Waters and find out.
So as we continue our look at this work, we find more and more of bad argumentation from KJV-Onlyists. The first question is about Noah.
Bible Question #4: Noah was a great man used by God to build the Ark. To be called for such a task required Noah to be approved by the Lord God. So, how was Noah ‘justified’ before God? Was Noah’s justification by his own works?
For the answer, turn in your Bible to Genesis 6:8. In a ‘modern version’ it says something like:
“Noah found favor in the eyes of the Lord.”
Now think what the word favor implies. Favor implies that Noah was ‘better’ than others. Favor implies Noah was approved by God because of his own ‘good works’.
Now compare that to the KJV. It says:
“Noah found GRACE in the eyes of the Lord“.
Even though Noah was used of God, he was also in need of grace (just like all of us). Noah was NOT justified by his good works, but by God’s grace.
Look at verse 9: It says Noah walked with God. Notice that Noah’s walk with God occurs, in verse 9, AFTER Noah received grace from God, in verse 8. Grace precedes our walk with God. We are NOT justified (NOR saved) by our own works.
Remember, Noah got drunk on occasion (Gen 9:21). He was in need of God’s amazing grace. We are, too.
The consistent theme of the Bible is that we are saved by God’s grace and NOT by our own works. Grace and favor have two totally, different, meanings.
The Authorized King James Bible is consistent with the Bible’s teachings. These ‘modern versions’ are not.
Nothing in this text is about justification. It is not about how Noah was forgiven of his sins. The word here is hen and looking at how the KJV translates it, they translate it sometimes as grace and sometimes as favor. The idea here is that by saying favor, the text implies that Noah was better than his fellow people.
Newsflash. Noah was better. The very next verse said he was a righteous man, blameless in his time, and he walked faithfully with God.
This is not about Noah finding grace, which we could say would be something intrinsic to Noah that God discovers, but favor, in that because Noah lived differently, He was allowed a special blessing. Is that really a problem?
Not at all.
Let’s look at 2 verses. Turn to 1st Peter 4:1. In a ‘modern’ version it says: “… Christ suffered …”
In your Authorized King James Bible the full reading is quoted as:
“… Christ suffered FOR US.”
Notice the last two words give the FULL meaning. Leaving out “for us” misses the point entirely!
This is confirmed again in 1 Corinthians 5:7b. In many ‘new’ versions it says:
“For Christ, our Passover, has been sacrificed.”
Again, the full reading is found in the King James Bible. It says:
“For even Christ our passover is sacrificed FOR US.”
This seems to imply that a modern reader of a modern translation won’t know this. The problem is when you look at a text like 1 Peter 4, there are differences in Greek such that some have “for us” and some do not. I suspect the same for the other passage as this would be something natural for a scribe to add.
Of course, it’s easier to just slander others and argue for your conspiracy theory.
Now if the KJV-onlyist wants to argue their text is superior in the Greek, they need an argument for that. It can’t just be asserted.
We’ll continue next time.
(And I affirm the virgin birth)