Did all things come by or through Jesus? Let’s plunge into the Deeper Waters and find out.
That’s just one question we’re going to discuss. There isn’t much more to section 2. Anyway, here‘s where you can find the original so you can know I’m quoting properly. Let’s begin.
KJV: “For the Son of Man IS come to save that which was lost.”
NKJV: “For the Son of Man has come to save that which was lost.”
Comment: The NJKV says Jesus Christ “has come” to save that
which was lost; a PAST TENSE statement. The NKJV implies that ALL who were to be saved, HAVE BEEN saved. Not true. Anyone TODAY can be saved by Jesus. The correct reading is PRESENT TENSE. There are NUMEROUS places where the NKJV changes the verb tense. These types of NKJV corruptions are very subtle.
I have looked over this and all I can say is I am convinced that this is just more nitpicking. I have read this verse several times and even reading it now, I have never at all thought that. One rule of reading is you try to give the principle of charity and put what you are reading in the best light possible. Apparently, that doesn’t apply if you’re a KJV-onlyist.
KJV: “Then came to him the mother of Zebedee’s children with her sons, WORSHIPPING him …”
NKJV: “Then the mother of Zebedee’s sons came to Him with her sons, kneeling down …”
COMMENT: Kneeling down is not even close to ‘worship’.
Kneeling down would be a regular part of worship in the culture as showing honor. However, this is once again “The NKJV is different so therefore wrong.” I have no reason to think that the mother of James and John understood the deity of Christ. Kneeling makes more sense.
KJV: “All things were made BY Him …”
NKJV: “All things were made through Him …”
COMMENT: ‘BY‘ and through are totally different. Think about it.
Yes. They are. Also, by his more accurate. Jesus is compared to wisdom in the NT and in the Proverbs and intertestamental literature, Wisdom was the means by which God made the world. The Father is the source and the Son is the means.
KJV: “God is A Spirit …”
NKJV: “God is Spirit …”
COMMENT: For the NKJV to say: “God is spirit” is to infer that ALL spirits are God. Not true. We know there are evil spirits. And we know in God there is NO evil. Thus the KJV is correct: God is ‘A‘ spirit.
One could just as well say saying God is a spirit is putting God as one among many and in the class of spirits, but that wouldn’t be a charitable reading. However, I have no reason to think that saying God is Spirit even begin to imply (Not infer. Infer is what the person responding does.) that all spirits are God. You might as well say “God is good” implies that all that is good is God.
KJV: “… after Easter …”
NKJV: “… after Passover”
Seriously, that’s all that is said here. However, the NKJV is correct. There would have been no word for Easter at this point nor is there any reason to think that the Jews would have gathered together to celebrate “Easter.” Passover is the more accurate translation.
(And I affirm the virgin birth)