Spiritual Deception in the Highest 2-4

Were the disciples ignorant? Let’s plunge into the Deeper Waters and find out.

We’re looking at more comparisons from a KJV-onlyist, this time between the KJV and the NKJV. You can find the link here. Let’s get started.

Acts 4:13

KJV: “Now when they saw the boldness of Peter and John, and perceived that they were unlearned and IGNORANT men …”

NKJV: “Now when they saw the boldness of Peter and John, and perceived that they were uneducated and untrained men …”

COMMENT: Peter and John had been with Jesus for some time. They WERE NOT untrained. Jesus HAD trained them. They were, however, ignorant (In the eyes of the Pharisees).

Why not say they were uneducated and untrained in the eyes of the Pharisees? (Is Jeff Johnson adding to the blessed KJV?!) However, the word Luke uses here best indicates uneducated and untrained. It meant that they had no formal education, which is true, but they had been with Jesus, the best rabbi ever.

Acts 17:22

KJV: “Then Paul stood in the midst of Mars’ hill, and said, Ye men of Athens, I perceive that in all things ye are TOO SUPERSTITIOUS.”

NKJV: “Then Paul stood in the midst of the Areopagus and said, Men of Athens, I perceive that in all things you are very religious;”

Comment: Come on! Being very religious and TOO SUPERSTITIOUS are entirely different!

But here’s the irony. The word means both. In a good sense, it refers to religious. In a bad sense, superstitious. Paul could have meant both. He could have been trying to leave his audience wondering where he was going, the good or the bad sense. Apparently, though, those questions aren’t worth exploring to Johnson. Nah. Just go with what the KJV says!

2 Cor. 2:17

KJV: “For we are not as many, which CORRUPT the Word of God …”

NKJV:”For we are not, as so many, peddling the Word of God …”

COMMENT: Peddling and corrupting are very different. “Modern” versions try and hide from the truth they are ‘corrupting’ the Word of God.

Once again, the word can indicate both. In some cases, peddling was even considered corrupting. Peddlers would alter their commodities somehow in order to get a profit. What is ridiculous here, is to insist that the modern versions are trying to out themselves. If this is the standard, does this mean that the KJV was peddling the Word of God?

KJV: “I AM crucified with Christ …”

NKJV: “I have been crucified with Christ …”

COMMENT: The NKJV is saying their crucifixion is over! Not true. The believers crucifixion is an ongoing, PRESENT TENSE, transaction.

Um. No. In one sense, of course, the crucifixion is over. However, when this verse is used in the accounts of the crucifixion in the Gospels, it is in the past tense. The principle of charity tries to read the opponent in the best light. Johnson has no interest in doing that.

Eph. 5:1

KJV: “Therefore be FOLLOWERS of God …”

NKJV: “Therefore be imitators of God …”

Comment: See chapter 1 of this report for a full analysis. Only Satan tries to imitate God as Satan wants to be worshipped AS God. Born again believers cannot imitate God. We can’t rule the universe. We can only follow God. Remember Jesus DID NOT tell his “fishers of men” to imitate Him. Jesus said: “follow me …”.

See here.

Hopefully next time, we will finish off this part.

In Christ,
Nick Peters
(And I affirm the virgin birth)

Spiritual Deception in the Highest 2-3

Did all things come by or through Jesus? Let’s plunge into the Deeper Waters and find out.

That’s just one question we’re going to discuss. There isn’t much more to section 2. Anyway, here‘s where you can find the original so you can know I’m quoting properly. Let’s begin.

Matt 18:11

KJV: “For the Son of Man IS come to save that which was lost.”

NKJV: “For the Son of Man has come to save that which was lost.”

Comment: The NJKV says Jesus Christ “has come” to save that

which was lost; a PAST TENSE statement. The NKJV implies that ALL who were to be saved, HAVE BEEN saved. Not true. Anyone TODAY can be saved by Jesus. The correct reading is PRESENT TENSE. There are NUMEROUS places where the NKJV changes the verb tense. These types of NKJV corruptions are very subtle.

I have looked over this and all I can say is I am convinced that this is just more nitpicking. I have read this verse several times and even reading it now, I have never at all thought that. One rule of reading is you try to give the principle of charity and put what you are reading in the best light possible. Apparently, that doesn’t apply if you’re a KJV-onlyist.

Matt 20:20

KJV: “Then came to him the mother of Zebedee’s children with her sons, WORSHIPPING him …”

NKJV: “Then the mother of Zebedee’s sons came to Him with her sons, kneeling down …”

COMMENT: Kneeling down is not even close to ‘worship’.

Kneeling down would be a regular part of worship in the culture as showing honor. However, this is once again “The NKJV is different so therefore wrong.” I have no reason to think that the mother of James and John understood the deity of Christ. Kneeling makes more sense.

John 1:3

KJV: “All things were made BY Him …”

NKJV: “All things were made through Him …”

COMMENT: ‘BY‘ and through are totally different. Think about it.

Yes. They are. Also, by his more accurate. Jesus is compared to wisdom in the NT and in the Proverbs and intertestamental literature, Wisdom was the means by which God made the world. The Father is the source and the Son is the means.

John 4:24

KJV: “God is A Spirit …”

NKJV: “God is Spirit …”

COMMENT: For the NKJV to say: “God is spirit” is to infer that ALL spirits are God. Not true. We know there are evil spirits. And we know in God there is NO evil. Thus the KJV is correct: God is ‘A‘ spirit.

One could just as well say saying God is a spirit is putting God as one among many and in the class of spirits, but that wouldn’t be a charitable reading. However, I have no reason to think that saying God is Spirit even begin to imply (Not infer. Infer is what the person responding does.) that all spirits are God. You might as well say “God is good” implies that all that is good is God.

Acts 12:4

KJV: “… after Easter …”

NKJV: “… after Passover”

Seriously, that’s all that is said here. However, the NKJV is correct. There would have been no word for Easter at this point nor is there any reason to think that the Jews would have gathered together to celebrate “Easter.” Passover is the more accurate translation.

In Christ,
Nick Peters
(And I affirm the virgin birth)